O Levels Physics Mcq Simulation

This is a simulation for your MCQ physics paper.

The Actual paper is 40 questions and 1 hour long.

You will only have 50 minutes for this simulation. 40 minutes to do and 10 minutes to check your work.

Times up!

O level Pure physics

1 / 40

1) In the circuit shown, R1 and R2 are identical resistors.

Which changes to the electrical components X and Y will increase the reading of the ammeter by the greatest amount?

1. B

2. D

3. C

4. A

2 / 40

2) The diagram shows two divergent rays of light from an object O being reflected from a plane mirror. At which position is the image formed?

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. D

3 / 40

3) A wire has a resistance of 8.0 Ω. A second wire, made of the same material, has double the length and half the thickness.

What is the resistance of the second wire?

1. 32 ohms

2. 8 ohms

3. 16 ohms

4. 64 ohms

4 / 40

4) A beam of radiation enters a region in which there is a very strong, uniform magnetic field directed into the page. All the equipment is in a vacuum.

The beam splits and the curved path and the straight path taken by the radiation in the magnetic field are shown on the diagram. What types of radiation are in the incident beam?

1. α-particles and β-particles only

2. α-particles and γ-rays only

3. β-particles and γ-rays only

4. α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

5 / 40

5) A hot metal plate is placed near to a cold metal plate.

Which row shows the colour for the hot plate and for cold plate that causes the temperature of cold plate to increase most slowly?

1. C

2. A

3. B

4. D

6 / 40

6) A 4.0 m long uniform plank weighing 50 N balances on two pivots P and Q when a load of 40 N is placed at one end.

1. A

2. D

3. C

4. B

7 / 40

7) A 0.30 kW heater is used to heat a well-insulated 3.0 kg mass of copper for 5 minutes.

The temperature rises by 75 oC.

What is the specific heat capacity of copper?

1. 6.7 J/(kg oC)

2. 400 J/(kg oC)

3. 0.0067 J/(kg oC)

4. 0.40 J/(kg oC)

8 / 40

8) Smoke detectors may make use of radioactive emissions to function. Which of the following best explains why alpha-particles are used in smoke detectors?

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. B

9 / 40

9) A combined bathroom unit of a heater and a lamp is controlled by one switch. The unit contains a 2 kW heater and a 100 W lamp. In one week, the lamp uses 1 kWh of electrical energy.

How much electrical energy is used by the heater alone?

1. 4 kWh

2. 10 kWh

3. 20 kWh

4. 2 kWh

10 / 40

10) James stands at a point J between two parallel walls as shown in the diagram below and fires a pistol.

He hears the first echo after 0.40 s and the second echo after 1.0 s.

How long after firing the pistol will James hear the third echo?

1. 2.0 s

2. 2.8 s

3. 1.4 s

4. 0.8 s

11 / 40

11) A transverse wave is produced on a rope. The diagram shows the rope at one instant. The wave travels at a speed of 4.0 m/s.

What are the wavelength and the frequency of the wave?

1. D

2. A

3. C

4. B

12 / 40

12) A 10 kg object initially at rest is being pulled with a constant force of 8.0 N. The object moves a horizontal distance of 2.0 m, and its speed increases to 1.0 m/s. What is the work done against the resistive forces?

1. 5.5 J

2. 11J

3. 16J

4. 21J

13 / 40

13) A student pushes the N-pole of a bar magnet into end Q of a long solenoid. An electromotive force and hence an induced current is induced in the solenoid and the galvanometer needle deflects to the left as shown.

Which of the following produces a deflection in the same direction?

1. pulling the S-pole out of end P

2. pushing the S-pole into end P

3. pushing the N-pole into end P

4. pulling the N-pole out of end Q

14 / 40

14) A water wave moves from deep water to shallow water. Its speed decreases in shallow water. Which statement correctly describes the frequency and wavelength of the wave in the shallow water?

1. Both frequency and wavelength decrease.

2. Both frequency and wavelength remain unchanged.

3. Frequency decreases while wavelength remains unchanged.

4. Frequency remains unchanged while wavelength decreases.

15 / 40

15) The gravitational field strength on Earth is 9.8 N/ kg. The gravitational field strength on Mars is 3.7 N/ kg. The difference between the weight of an object on Earth and the weight of the same object on Mars is 25 N.

What is the mass of the object?

1. 2.6 kg`

2. 4.1 kg

3. 6.8 kg

4. 1.9 kg

16 / 40

16) The diagram shows a working barometer. Which of the following would not cause the height h of the mercury column to vary?

1. Change in gravitational field strength.

2. Change in the temperature.

3. Leakage of air into the tube.

4. Adding mercury to the trough.

17 / 40

17) The following circuit is set up

What is the reading on the ammeter?

1. 0.33 A

2. 3.0 A

3. 1.5 A

4. 0.9 A

18 / 40

18) The diagram shows a permanent magnet approaching a solenoid at a constant speed.

1. D

2. A

3. C

4. B

19 / 40

19) Which of the following correctly describes an action-reaction pair of forces?

1. The pulling force acting on a trolley and the frictional force acting on the trolley.

2. The reaction force on a book resting on a table and the weight of the book.

3. A runner pushes backward on the ground and the ground pushes forwards on runner.

4. The backward force acting on water by propeller and the resistive force acting on the boat.

20 / 40

20) A builder holding a brick of mass 3000 g drops the brick on his foot. What is a reasonable estimate of the change in the gravitational potential store of the brick?

1. 30000 J

2. 3000 J

3. 300 J

4. 30 J

21 / 40

21) A 3-pin plug is connected to a heater with a rating of ‘200V, 1200 W’.

Which of the following is/are correct?

1 . A 5A fuse should be used inside the heater.

2 . The fuse should be placed on the brown wire of the cable.

3 . The neutral wire should be connected to the metal case of the heater.

1. 3 only

2. 2 and 3 only

3. 2 only

4. 1 and 2 only

22 / 40

22) A gas is in a sealed container of constant volume. The gas is heated and the pressure of the gas on the walls of the container increases.

How do the particles of the gas cause this increase in pressure?

1. They vibrate faster.

2. They hit the container more frequently.

3. They expand.

4. They hit each other more frequently.

23 / 40

23) A gas supply is connected to a mercury barometer. The same gas supply is then connected to a water barometer.

The density of mercury is 13 600 kg / m3 and the density of water is 1000 kg / m3. What is the value of h?

1. 0.68 m

2. 68 m

3. 82 m

4. 0.82 m

24 / 40

24) A gymnast of mass 60 kg lands on a trampoline. If he rebounds upwards with an acceleration of 0.60 m/s^2, what is the maximum force exerted by the trampoline on the gymnast?

1. 36 N

2. 672 N

3. 564 N

4. 636 N

25 / 40

25) The ends of three metal rods are tested by holding end Q of rod 1 close to each end of rods 2 and 3.

The results are as follows:

End Q attracts end R.

End Q attracts end S.

End Q attracts end T.

End Q repels end U.

Which of the metal rods is a magnet?

1. rod 2 only

2. rod 1 only

3. rod 1 and rod 3 only

4. rod 2 and rod 3 only

26 / 40

26) In the circuit shown below, two resistors R1 and R2, a motor M and lamp L are connected to a suitable voltage supply.

1. If the motor is removed from the circuit and replaced with a wire, the current through each component would be two times the existing value.

2. The motor uses the greatest amount of electrical energy per unit time.

3. The lamp has the least amount of current passing through compared to other components.

4. The resistance of R1 is twice the resistance of R2.

27 / 40

27) Which process(es) of thermal energy transfer require a medium?

1. conduction and convection

2. radiation only

3. conduction only

4. convection and radiation

28 / 40

28) Bats produce ultrasound to navigate.

What is the possible frequency range of ultrasound waves?

1. 20 Hz to 1200 Hz

2. 20 kHz to 120 kHz

3. 0 Hz to 20 Hz

4. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

29 / 40

29) Two identical beakers contain the same mass of liquid.
Each beaker contains a different liquid.

Liquid Q has a density ρ.
What is the density of liquid P

1. 9ρ

2. ρ

3. ρ ÷ 3

4. 3ρ

30 / 40

30) Which statement about the transfer of thermal energy is correct?

1. Transfer in solids is by means of density changes in the material.

2. Transfer by radiation does not require a medium.

3. Transfer is from a region of lower temperature to one of higher temperature.

4. Transfer upwards in fluids is mainly through the vibrations of neighbouring particles.

31 / 40

31) A water wave travels from deep water to shallow water in a ripple tank as shown in the diagram.

Waves in the deep water have a wavelength of 3.6 cm and a speed of 18 cm /s.

The speed of the waves in shallow water is 15 cm / s. What is the wavelength of the waves in the shallow water?

1. 4.3 cm

2. 5.0 cm

3. 3.0 cm

4. 3.6 cm

32 / 40

32) A magnetic field is produced when a current flows through a straight wire XY. Which of the following correctly shows the magnetic field pattern produced by wire XY?

1. B

2. A

3. C

4. D

33 / 40

33) Which of the following best explains why nuclear fission does not take place easily?

1. Energy is required to overcome the repulsion between the neutrons of the atoms involved in nuclear fission.

2. Energy is required to overcome the repulsion between electrons of the atoms involved in nuclear fission.

3. Energy is required to overcome the repulsion between the neutrons and the protons of the atoms involved in nuclear fission.

4. Energy is required to overcome the repulsion between the protons of the atoms involved in nuclear fission.

34 / 40

34) A force of 400 N is applied on a crate of weight 500 N along a ramp as shown in the diagram. The crate moves a distance of 5.0 m at constant speed.

1. B

2. A

3. D

4. C

35 / 40

35) Ultrasound is high-pitched and cannot be heard by human ears. However, ultrasound has many uses.

Which of the following is/are the correct use/s of ultrasound?

(1) Checking for cracks or damages in materials.

(2) Medical scanning of organs and tissues.

(3) Radar systems used by air traffic controllers to detect the location of an aeroplane.

1. (1) only

2. (2) only

3. (1) and (3) only

4. (1) and (2) only

36 / 40

36) A piece of metal is heated, and its mass and volume are measured to determine how its density changes with temperature.

Which of the following graphs shows the relationship between the density of the substance and temperature?

1. A

2. D

3. B

4. C

37 / 40

37) Which instrument is most suitable for measuring the internal diameter of a pipe?

1. digital micrometer

2. digital calipers

3. measuring cylinder

4. manometer

38 / 40

38) The diagram shows the speed-time graph of a moving object over a period of 50 s.

What is the average speed of the object when it is decelerating?

1. 10 m/s

2. 17 m/s

3. 11 m/s

4. 12 m/s

39 / 40

39) A drone moves eastwards and arrives at a point due east of its starting point.

The drone has a speed of V in still air.

A wind of speed W is blowing from north to south, affecting the drone.

Which diagram correctly represents the resultant velocity, R, of the drone?

1. B

2. D

3. A

4. C

40 / 40

40) The circuit diagram shows a 2.0 Ω resistor connected in series with a parallel arrangement of a 2.0 Ω resistor and a 5.0 Ω resistor.

The current flowing through the 5.0 Ω resistor is 1.0 A. What is the reading on the voltmeter?

1. 10 V

2. 7.0 V

3. 17 V

4. 12 V

Your score is

The average score is 14%

Physics MCQ Paper 1 now carries a 30% weightage under the current syllabus.
This is a significant portion that can easily impact your final grade by 2–3 bands. To maximise your score, aim for full marks by doing plenty of targeted practice. It might make the difference between A1 and A2.

Never underestimate the difficulty of multiple-choice questions — they are often designed to test your precision and attention to detail. Always check your answers carefully, manage your time wisely, and stay alert for tricky questions.

How are the questions being set?

-Knowledge with Understanding, approximately 45% of the marks with approximately 15% allocated to recall.

-Handling Information and Solving Problems, approximately 55% of the marks.