O Levels Physics Mcq Simulation

This is a simulation for your MCQ physics paper.

The Actual paper is 40 questions and 1 hour long.

You will only have 50 minutes for this simulation. 40 minutes to do and 10 minutes to check your work.

Times up!

O level Pure physics

1 / 40

1) The diagram shows a network of resistors. Each resistor has a resistance of 6.0 Ω.

What is the total resistance of the network between points X and Y?

1. 5.0

2. 7.2

3. 3.0

4. 18

2 / 40

2) Which of the following correctly describes an action-reaction pair of forces?

1. A runner pushes backward on the ground and the ground pushes forwards on runner.

2. The backward force acting on water by propeller and the resistive force acting on the boat.

3. The pulling force acting on a trolley and the frictional force acting on the trolley.

4. The reaction force on a book resting on a table and the weight of the book.

3 / 40

3) A wire has a resistance of 8.0 Ω. A second wire, made of the same material, has double the length and half the thickness.

What is the resistance of the second wire?

1. 16 ohms

2. 32 ohms

3. 8 ohms

4. 64 ohms

4 / 40

4) Nuclear fusion is a reaction that can take place in the sun.
Which row describes this reaction?

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

5 / 40

5) Which of the following statements (s) is/are true for an object being heated?

I. Its temperature always increases.

II. Energy in the internal store always increases.

III. Energy in the internal and potential stores cannot increase at the same time.

1. All of the above

2. II only

3. I and II only

4. II and III only

6 / 40

6) Two identical beakers contain the same mass of liquid.
Each beaker contains a different liquid.

Liquid Q has a density ρ.
What is the density of liquid P

1. ρ ÷ 3

2. ρ

3. 9ρ

4. 3ρ

7 / 40

7) An object travels for 20 s with a constant speed of 10 m/s. For the next 10 s, it accelerates uniformly to 20 m/s.

What is the average speed of the object during the last 15 s of its motion?

1. 12.5 m/s

2. 15.0 m/s

3. 13.3 m/s

4. 11.7 m/s

8 / 40

8) A force of 400 N is applied on a crate of weight 500 N along a ramp as shown in the diagram. The crate moves a distance of 5.0 m at constant speed.

1. D

2. C

3. A

4. B

9 / 40

9) A water wave travels from deep water to shallow water in a ripple tank as shown in the diagram.

Waves in the deep water have a wavelength of 3.6 cm and a speed of 18 cm /s.

The speed of the waves in shallow water is 15 cm / s. What is the wavelength of the waves in the shallow water?

1. 5.0 cm

2. 3.0 cm

3. 4.3 cm

4. 3.6 cm

10 / 40

10) The diagram shows an object on the principal axis of a converging (convex) lens. F is the principal focus of the lens.

Where is the image formed by the lens?

1. between F and O

2. between F and Q

3. to the right of Q

4. at Q

11 / 40

11) In a game of softball, a player strikes a ball using a bat, exerting a force F on the ball.

Which of the following, with F, forms an action-reaction pair?

1. the force of the air on the ball

2. the force of the ball on air

3. the force of the Earth on the ball

4. the force of the ball on the bat

12 / 40

12) Which graph shows the total external pressure acting on a submarine at different depths below the surface of the sea?

1. D

2. A

3. C

4. B

13 / 40

13) The input power to a motor is 300 W. In 20 s, it lifts a load through a height of 6.0 m.

The efficiency of the motor is 60%.

What is the weight of the load?

1. 900 N

2. 100 N

3. 600 N

4. 1000 N

14 / 40

14) A current of 4.5 A flows through the electrical components of a refrigerator when connected to a source of 240 V. It costs $0.35 for 1 kW h of electrical energy.

How much will it cost to keep the refrigerator running for 1 week?

1. $2.25

2. $63.50

3. $378

4. $0.05

15 / 40

15) Block A and block B are connected by a light inextensible string. A force of 12 N acts on block A as shown.

Given that the floor is smooth, what is the tension in the string connecting block A and block B?

1. 12 N

2. 4.0 N

3. 2.0 N

4. 8.0 N

16 / 40

16) Smoke detectors may make use of radioactive emissions to function. Which of the following best explains why alpha-particles are used in smoke detectors?

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

17 / 40

17) The diagram below shows a manometer.

What is the pressure of the enclosed air in the manometer?

1. 120 mmHg

2. 200 mmHg

3. 550 mmHg

4. 80 mmHg

18 / 40

18) An electron is placed at the point N in the electric field as shown below where point N is the centre of two identical positive charges.

What is the motion of the electron?

1. moves upwards

2. does not move

3. moves out of the plane of paper

4. moves downwards

19 / 40

19) Which graph represents the motion of a body falling vertically that reaches a terminal speed?

1. C

2. B

3. D

4. A

20 / 40

20) The half-life of a certain radioactive element is such that 7/8 of a given quantity decays in 12 days.

What fraction remains undecayed after 24 days?

1. 1/16

2. 1/32

3. 1/64

4. 1/128

21 / 40

21) A stone has a mass of 390 g and a density of 2.7 g/cm3. Cooking oil has a density of 0.90 g/cm3.

Which mass of cooking oil has the same volume as the stone?

1. 1200g

2. 160g

3. 130 g

4. 900g

22 / 40

22) Which process(es) of thermal energy transfer require a medium?

1. conduction and convection

2. convection and radiation

3. radiation only

4. conduction only

23 / 40

23) Electricity is transmitted over large distances through high-voltage power cables running alternating current. What are the advantages of using high-voltage cables and alternating current?

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

24 / 40

24) Which of the following shows the outcome of installing the fuse in the neutral wire?

1. The filament in the fuse will melt when excessive current flows, and the device will be disconnected from high electric potential.

2. The filament in the fuse will not melt when excessive current flows, and the device will be disconnected from high electric potential.

3. The filament in the fuse will not melt when excessive current flows, and the device will still be connected to high electric potential.

4. The filament in the fuse will melt when excessive current flows, and the device will still be connected to high electric potential.

25 / 40

25) A solid of 2.0 kg is heated by a 2000 W heater. The graph of temperature against time for the substance is shown in the diagram.

What is the specific latent heat of fusion of the solid?

1. 300 kJ / kg

2. 2.0 kJ / kg

3. 150 kJ / kg

4. 30 kJ / kg

26 / 40

26) Light in a vacuum strikes a glass surface at an angle of incidence of 42 °. In the glass, the angle of refraction is 29 °.

What is the speed of light in glass?

1. 4.1 × 10^8 m / s

2. 3.0 × 10^8 m / s

3. 2.1 × 10^8 m / s

4. 2.2× 10^8 m / s

27 / 40

27) Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency while travelling through a vacuum?

1. light waves

2. gamma rays

3. microwaves

4. infra red waves

28 / 40

28) The diagram shows an ideal transformer. An alternating current supply of 100 V is supplied to the primary coil and a current of 0.50 A flows through it.

1. A

2. D

3. B

4. C

29 / 40

29) In the circuit shown, R1 and R2 are identical resistors.

Which changes to the electrical components X and Y will increase the reading of the ammeter by the greatest amount?

1. D

2. A

3. C

4. B

30 / 40

30) Which instrument is most suitable for measuring the internal diameter of a pipe?

1. manometer

2. digital calipers

3. digital micrometer

4. measuring cylinder

31 / 40

31) The diagram below shows a simple d.c. motor

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. A current will flow round the coil in the direction WXYZ.

II. The coil will rotate in a clockwise direction about the axle.

III. The split-ring commutator will reverse the direction of the current every 360°.

1. I and II only

2. II and III only

3. I and III only

4. I only

32 / 40

32) A detector of ionising radiation gives a background reading of 20 counts/minute.
A radioactive isotope with a half-life of 2.0 days is brought near to the detector. The reading on the detector increases to 100 counts/minute.
How long does it take for the reading on the detector to decrease to 40 counts/minute?

1. 10 days

2. 4.0 days

3. 5.0 days

4. 2.0 days

33 / 40

33) A uniform metre rule is supported by vertical wires P and Q and remains horizontal as shown in diagram 1. The tension in each wire is 1 N. When a weight of 4 N is hung from the metre rule at the position as shown in diagram 2, the tension in Q becomes 2.3 N while the metre rule remains horizontal.

What is the distance d of the weight 4 N from end P?

1. 57.5 cm

2. 32.5 cm

3. 67.5 cm

4. Cannot be found as tension in P is unknown

34 / 40

34) An image is formed in a plane mirror.

1. D

2. B

3. C

4. A

35 / 40

35) The velocity-time graph of an object being thrown up vertically into the air is shown.

Which information about the motion of the object is incorrect?

1. The only force acting on the object during its motion is gravitational force.

2. The displacement of the object at time 2T is zero.

3. The acceleration of the object at time T is zero.

4. The object is momentarily at rest at time T.

36 / 40

36) The displacement–time graph for an air particle in the path of a sound wave is shown.

Which property of the sound wave must be increasing?

1. wavelength

2. frequency

3. period

4. amplitude

37 / 40

37) A neutral atom of an isotope has the nuclide notation 84𝐾36.

Which statement is correct?

1. There are 48 protons in the nucleus of the atom.

2. There are 12 more neutrons than electrons in the atom.

3. There are 36 electrons in the nucleus of the atom.

4. There are 45 neutrons in the nucleus of the atom.

38 / 40

38) A gas is heated in a rigid sealed container. Which quantity does not change?

1. The average distance between the gas particles.

2. The frequency of collisions on the walls of the container by the gas particles.

3. The average force exerted on the walls of the container by the gas particles.

4. The average speed of the gas particles.

39 / 40

39) The diagram shows the distance-time graph of a moving object.

Which of the following describes this moving object?

1. It is a car that starts from rest and speeds up as it moves away from a traffic signal.

2. It is a ball thrown vertically upwards and falling back to the thrower.

3. It is a rock that is dropped from a high cliff and falling into the sea below

4. It is a train slowing down and coming to a stop at a train station.

40 / 40

40) A beam of electrons moves in a straight path through a magnetic field with an initial velocity, v. The electrons are deflected as shown.

What is the direction of the magnetic field?

1. to the right

2. out of the paper

3. into the paper

4. to the left

Your score is

The average score is 14%

Physics MCQ Paper 1 now carries a 30% weightage under the current syllabus.
This is a significant portion that can easily impact your final grade by 2–3 bands. To maximise your score, aim for full marks by doing plenty of targeted practice. It might make the difference between A1 and A2.

Never underestimate the difficulty of multiple-choice questions — they are often designed to test your precision and attention to detail. Always check your answers carefully, manage your time wisely, and stay alert for tricky questions.

How are the questions being set?

-Knowledge with Understanding, approximately 45% of the marks with approximately 15% allocated to recall.

-Handling Information and Solving Problems, approximately 55% of the marks.