O Levels Physics Mcq Simulation

This is a simulation for your MCQ physics paper.

The Actual paper is 40 questions and 1 hour long.

You will only have 50 minutes for this simulation. 40 minutes to do and 10 minutes to check your work.

Times up!

O level Pure physics

1 / 40

A beam of radiation enters a region in which there is a very strong, uniform magnetic field directed into the page. All the equipment is in a vacuum.

The beam splits and the curved path and the straight path taken by the radiation in the magnetic field are shown on the diagram. What types of radiation are in the incident beam?

1. α-particles and β-particles only

2. α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

3. α-particles and γ-rays only

4. β-particles and γ-rays only

2 / 40

An insulated beaker contains 300 g of water, initially at 30 °C. Water at 100 °C is added until the temperature of the mixture reaches 50 °C. The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J/(g°C).

How much water is added?

1. 60 g

2. 180 g

3. 120 g

4. 750 g

3 / 40

A builder holding a brick of mass 3000 g drops the brick on his foot. What is a reasonable estimate of the change in the gravitational potential store of the brick?

1. 30000 J

2. 30 J

3. 3000 J

4. 300 J

4 / 40

A man pushes a heavy box with a weight of 50 N along a rough ground with a force of 30 N. The box moves at constant speed.

What is the resultant force acting on the box?

1. 0 N

2. 80 N

3. 30 N

4. 50 N

5 / 40

A loudspeaker and a microphone are placed side by side in front of a wall. The loudspeaker makes a sound that is detected by the microphone. The microphone is connected to a device known as an oscilloscope, which is set so that each horizontal division on its screen represents a duration of 0.01 s. The microphone detects the original sound and the echo.

The speed of sound in air is 300 m/s.

What is the distance between the loudspeaker and the wall?

1. 24 m

2. 6.0 m

3. 12 m

4. 48 m

6 / 40

The diagram shows an object on the principal axis of a converging (convex) lens. F is the principal focus of the lens.

Where is the image formed by the lens?

1. at Q

2. to the right of Q

3. between F and O

4. between F and Q

7 / 40

Object X is stationary and positively charged. It experiences a force due to the field produced by object Y. The arrows show the direction of the field produced by Y.

Which statement about the direction of the force on X is correct?

1. It is towards the left because it is in an electric field.

2. It is towards the right because it is in an electric field.

3. It is towards the right because it is in a magnetic field.

4. It is towards the left because it is in a magnetic field.

8 / 40

A 0.30 kW heater is used to heat a well-insulated 3.0 kg mass of copper for 5 minutes.

The temperature rises by 75 oC.

What is the specific heat capacity of copper?

1. 0.40 J/(kg oC)

2. 0.0067 J/(kg oC)

3. 6.7 J/(kg oC)

4. 400 J/(kg oC)

9 / 40

In a nuclear power station, energy released from nuclear reactions are harnessed to produce electricity. Which statement about the reactors in a nuclear power plant is correct?

1. Large amount of radioactive substances are required to produce a small amount of electricity.

2. Nuclear reactors make use of reactions where heavy nuclei decay into smaller nuclei.

3. The reactions are easily controlled and no harmful substances are produced in a nuclear reaction.

4. A nuclear reaction may be initiated when a proton bombards a heavy nucleus, causing more protons to be released in a chain reaction.

10 / 40

A horizontal beam of electrons passes between the two poles of a magnet.

In which direction is the beam deflected?

1. towards the north pole

2. out of the page

3. towards the south pole

4. into the page

11 / 40

The following circuit is set up

What is the reading on the ammeter?

1. 0.9 A

2. 0.33 A

3. 3.0 A

4. 1.5 A

12 / 40

A thin converging lens has a focal length of 5.0 cm. An object is placed on the principal axis, 2.0 cm away from the lens.

What type of image is formed by the lens?

1. real and inverted

2. virtual and upright

3. real and upright

4. virtual and inverted

13 / 40

The velocity-time graph of an object being thrown up vertically into the air is shown.

Which information about the motion of the object is incorrect?

1. The only force acting on the object during its motion is gravitational force.

2. The acceleration of the object at time T is zero.

3. The displacement of the object at time 2T is zero.

4. The object is momentarily at rest at time T.

14 / 40

The figure shows an iron bar P and steel bar Q being wound by wire and connected to a d.c. supply. A compass is placed between the two metal bars at position X.

1. D

2. B

3. A

4. C

15 / 40

A 10 kg object initially at rest is being pulled with a constant force of 8.0 N. The object moves a horizontal distance of 2.0 m, and its speed increases to 1.0 m/s. What is the work done against the resistive forces?

1. 11J

2. 5.5 J

3. 16J

4. 21J

16 / 40

In an experiment, smoke particles are suspended in air and viewed through a microscope. The smoke particles undergo jerky random motion.

Which statement is correct?

1. Air particles have large mass compared to smoke particles and they move in random directions.

2. Air particles move at high speed compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction only.

3. Air particles move at high speed compared to smoke particle and they move in random directions.

4. Air particles have large mass compared to smoke particles and they move in one direction only.

17 / 40

A solar panel is used to recharge a battery. The solar panel produces 0.80 W of electrical
power. The panel is 20% efficient.

What is the power input of the sunlight onto the solar panel?

1. 4 W

2. 0.16 W

3. 16 W

4. 8 W

18 / 40

A box of mass 3.0 kg is initially at rest on a horizontal rough surface. Three parallel horizontal forces of magnitude 2.0 N, 3.0 N and 4.0 N act on the box . Friction that acts between the box and the ground is 1.5 N.

What is the minimum acceleration of the box?

1. 1.0 m/s^2

2. 2.5 m/s^2

3. 0.50 m/s^2

4. 0.25 m/s^2

19 / 40

A box of mass 2.0 kg is pushed along a 12 m ramp with a force F of 15.0 N and accelerates from point P to point Q. The speed of the box is 2.0 m / s at P and the average frictional force acting on the box is 4.0 N throughout the motion. The gravitational field strength is 10 N / kg.

What is the speed of the box at point Q?

1. 5.7 m / s

2. 16 m / s

3. 8.0 m / s

4. 6.0 m / s

20 / 40

Eskimos build igloos as temporary shelter in extremely cold places such as the Arctic. The diagram shows a cross-section of an igloo. The entrance is dug deep enough (lower than the sleeping area) to create a cold sink

Which statement about the air in the igloo is correct?

1. The warm air in the igloo is less dense, contracts and rises.

2. The air in the igloo is heated up by conduction only.

3. Warm air in the cold sink expands, becomes denser and rises out of the cold sink to heat up the rest of the igloo.

4. Cold air is denser and remains in the cold sink.

21 / 40

The half-life of a certain radioactive element is such that 7/8 of a given quantity decays in 12 days.

What fraction remains undecayed after 24 days?

1. 1/32

2. 1/16

3. 1/128

4. 1/64

22 / 40

The diagram shows a manometer containing mercury that is sealed at one end.

What happens to the height h when the manometer is taken to the top of a mountain?

1. It decreases, because atmospheric pressure increases.

2. It decreases, because atmospheric pressure decreases.

3. It increases, because atmospheric pressure decreases.

4. It increases, because atmospheric pressure increases.

23 / 40

Which of the following best explains why nuclear fission does not take place easily?

1. Energy is required to overcome the repulsion between the neutrons of the atoms involved in nuclear fission.

2. Energy is required to overcome the repulsion between the neutrons and the protons of the atoms involved in nuclear fission.

3. Energy is required to overcome the repulsion between electrons of the atoms involved in nuclear fission.

4. Energy is required to overcome the repulsion between the protons of the atoms involved in nuclear fission.

24 / 40

As air is sucked from a straw out of a sealed packet drink, the packet shrinks in volume.

Which of the following best explains why the packet drink shrinks in volume?

1. The kinetic energy of the air molecules in the packet drink has decreased and the frequency of collisions of the air molecules and packet wall has decreased.

2. The collision of air molecules with the internal surface area of packet drink has decreased.

3. The air molecules are in continuous random motion.

4. The air molecules move more quickly when they are heated.

25 / 40

Which of the following shows the outcome of installing the fuse in the neutral wire?

1. The filament in the fuse will melt when excessive current flows, and the device will still be connected to high electric potential.

2. The filament in the fuse will melt when excessive current flows, and the device will be disconnected from high electric potential.

3. The filament in the fuse will not melt when excessive current flows, and the device will still be connected to high electric potential.

4. The filament in the fuse will not melt when excessive current flows, and the device will be disconnected from high electric potential.

26 / 40

In nuclear ……1……, hydrogen nuclei ……2…… to form helium nuclei, releasing energy.

Which words correctly complete blanks 1 and 2?

1. D

2. B

3. C

4. A

27 / 40

A pulse of sound is transmitted vertically downward from the bottom of a stationery ship, and the time taken for its echo to be detected back at the ship is recorded. The ship repeats this process at another location. The new time recorded is 1.5 times as long as the time taken at the first location.

Which of the following is correct?

1. The speed of sound at the original location is 1.5 times as fast as at the new location.

2. The depth at the new location is 1.5 times as deep as the original location.

3. The depth at the new location is 0.75 times as deep as the original location.

4. The speed of sound at the original location is 0.75 times as fast as at the new location.

28 / 40

A stone has a mass of 390 g and a density of 2.7 g/cm3. Cooking oil has a density of 0.90 g/cm3.

Which mass of cooking oil has the same volume as the stone?

1. 1200g

2. 130 g

3. 900g

4. 160g

29 / 40

The diagram below shows light travelling from water and undergoing refraction.

1. B

2. C

3. D

4. A

30 / 40

A boy climbs slowly at a steady speed to the top of a small hill.

What is the main energy transfer taking place for the boy as he climbs?

1. chemical potential store to gravitational potential store

2. kinetic store to gravitational potential store

3. chemical potential store to kinetic store

4. internal store to kinetic store

31 / 40

A resultant force acts on an object and causes it to move in a straight line. The graph shows how the resultant force varies with time.

1. A

2. D

3. C

4. B

32 / 40

A gas supply is connected to a mercury barometer. The same gas supply is then connected to a water barometer.

The density of mercury is 13 600 kg / m3 and the density of water is 1000 kg / m3. What is the value of h?

1. 0.82 m

2. 68 m

3. 82 m

4. 0.68 m

33 / 40

Waves in the electromagnetic spectrum have different uses.

Which uses of the electromagnetic spectrum are incorrect?

1 . X-rays are used for prenatal scanning of the foetus.

2. Infra-red radiation is used in suntanning beds.

3. Microwaves are used in wireless telecommunications.

1. 1, 2 and 3

2. 2 and 3 only

3. 1 and 3 only

4. 1 and 2 only

34 / 40

Alex is jogging at constant speed beside a road. He sees the traffic lights in front of him turn amber, so he begins to jog at a lower constant speed. Which distance-time graph illustrates Alex’s motion?

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

35 / 40

Which properties make materials suitable for use as a core in an electromagnet?

1. easy to magnetise and retains magnetic strength

2. difficult to magnetise and retains magnetic strength

3. difficult to magnetise and easy to demagnetise

4. easy to magnetise and easy to demagnetise

36 / 40

Bats produce ultrasound to navigate.

What is the possible frequency range of ultrasound waves?

1. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

2. 20 Hz to 1200 Hz

3. 20 kHz to 120 kHz

4. 0 Hz to 20 Hz

37 / 40

Ultrasound is high-pitched and cannot be heard by human ears. However, ultrasound has many uses.

Which of the following is/are the correct use/s of ultrasound?

(1) Checking for cracks or damages in materials.

(2) Medical scanning of organs and tissues.

(3) Radar systems used by air traffic controllers to detect the location of an aeroplane.

1. (1) and (3) only

2. (2) only

3. (1) and (2) only

4. (1) only

38 / 40

In the circuit shown, R1 and R2 are identical resistors.

Which changes to the electrical components X and Y will increase the reading of the ammeter by the greatest amount?

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

39 / 40

A plastic tube is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.4. Light travelling in the plastic tube strikes the inside surface at an angle of incidence of 70°. The light undergoes total internal reflection.

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

40 / 40

James stands at a point J between two parallel walls as shown in the diagram below and fires a pistol.

He hears the first echo after 0.40 s and the second echo after 1.0 s.

How long after firing the pistol will James hear the third echo?

1. 2.8 s

2. 2.0 s

3. 0.8 s

4. 1.4 s

Your score is

The average score is 12%

Physics MCQ Paper 1 now carries a 30% weightage under the current syllabus.
This is a significant portion that can easily impact your final grade by 2–3 bands. To maximise your score, aim for full marks by doing plenty of targeted practice. It might make the difference between A1 and A2.

Never underestimate the difficulty of multiple-choice questions — they are often designed to test your precision and attention to detail. Always check your answers carefully, manage your time wisely, and stay alert for tricky questions.

How are the questions being set?

-Knowledge with Understanding, approximately 45% of the marks with approximately 15% allocated to recall.

-Handling Information and Solving Problems, approximately 55% of the marks.