O Levels Physics Mcq Simulation

This is a simulation for your MCQ physics paper.

The Actual paper is 40 questions and 1 hour long.

You will only have 50 minutes for this simulation. 40 minutes to do and 10 minutes to check your work.

Times up!

O level Pure physics

1 / 40

1) The diagram shows a permanent magnet approaching a solenoid at a constant speed.

1. C

2. A

3. B

4. D

2 / 40

2) The speed of a wave is 4.0 × 10^5 m/s. The wavelength of the same wave is measured to be 5.0 × 10^6 m.

Determine the period of the wave.

1. 12.5 s

2. 5.0 × 10^-13 s

3. 0.080 s

4. 2.0 × 10^12 s

3 / 40

3) The input power to a motor is 300 W. In 20 s, it lifts a load through a height of 6.0 m.

The efficiency of the motor is 60%.

What is the weight of the load?

1. 1000 N

2. 900 N

3. 100 N

4. 600 N

4 / 40

4) A car of mass 1500 kg is towing a trailer of mass 1100 kg along a level road. The acceleration of the car is 1.30 m/s2. Ignoring friction and air resistance, what is the driving force on the car?

1. 3380 N

2. 520 N

3. 1950 N

4. 1430 N

5 / 40

5) A consultant for a cookware manufacturer wishes to make a pan that will have two features:

(i) absorb energy from a flame as quickly as possible, and

(ii) has a cooking surface that stays as hot as possible when heated.

Which pan would be recommended?

1. outer and inner surface shiny

2. outer and inner surface black

3. outer surface shiny and inner surface black

4. outer surface black and inner surface shiny

6 / 40

6) The diagram below shows a water manometer used to measure the pressure inside a gas pipe. The density of water is 1000 kg m-3 and gravitational field strength is 10 N kg-1.

Find the pressure of the gas supply in Pa.

1. 380 Pa

2. 380 Pa above atmospheric pressure

3. 520 Pa above atmospheric pressure

4. 520 Pa

7 / 40

7) Light in a vacuum strikes a glass surface at an angle of incidence of 42 °. In the glass, the angle of refraction is 29 °.

What is the speed of light in glass?

1. 2.2× 10^8 m / s

2. 4.1 × 10^8 m / s

3. 2.1 × 10^8 m / s

4. 3.0 × 10^8 m / s

8 / 40

8) A uniform metre rule is supported by vertical wires P and Q and remains horizontal as shown in diagram 1. The tension in each wire is 1 N. When a weight of 4 N is hung from the metre rule at the position as shown in diagram 2, the tension in Q becomes 2.3 N while the metre rule remains horizontal.

What is the distance d of the weight 4 N from end P?

1. 57.5 cm

2. 32.5 cm

3. Cannot be found as tension in P is unknown

4. 67.5 cm

9 / 40

9) The acceleration of free fall on a particular planet is 8.0 m s-2. An object was dropped from rest and hit the ground after 1.5 s.

Air resistance is negligible.

From what height was the object dropped?

1. 9.0 m

2. 18.0 m

3. 6.0 m

4. 12.0 m

10 / 40

10) A parachutist falls from a stationary balloon at time t = 0 s. The velocity-time graph for the parachutist from time t = 0 s until the time when he is just above the ground is shown.

1. B

2. D

3. A

4. C

11 / 40

11) A gymnast of mass 60 kg lands on a trampoline. If he rebounds upwards with an acceleration of 0.60 m/s^2, what is the maximum force exerted by the trampoline on the gymnast?

1. 672 N

2. 564 N

3. 36 N

4. 636 N

12 / 40

12) A thin converging lens has a focal length of 5.0 cm. An object is placed on the principal axis, 2.0 cm away from the lens.

What type of image is formed by the lens?

1. virtual and upright

2. virtual and inverted

3. real and upright

4. real and inverted

13 / 40

13) The diagram shows a simple d.c. electric motor.

When the switch is closed, which of the following statements is correct?

I. A current will flow round the coil in the direction PQRT.

II The coil will rotate in a clockwise direction when viewed from side PT.

III The split-ring commutator reverses the current after every complete cycle.

1. I only

2. III only

3. II and III

4. I and III

14 / 40

14) In the circuit shown, the battery has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 6.0 V and negligible internal resistance. The three resistors each have resistance R.

The total power dissipated in the resistor network is 24 W. What is the value of R?

1. 2.3 ohms

2. 1.5 ohms

3. 0.5 ohms

4. 1.0 ohms

15 / 40

15) The diagram below shows a simple mercury barometer that has been correctly constructed. At which point in the mercury column is the pressure equal to 10 cm Hg less than the atmospheric pressure?

1. B

2. D

3. A

4. C

16 / 40

16) The diagram shows a water wave traveling towards the right.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

I. Particles at X and W are in phase.

II. Particle at X will move to W after a period.

III. Particle at Z will move up in the next instant.

IV. Wavelength of the wave is represented by XY.

1. I and III only

2. I, II and IV only

3. II and IV only

4. all the above

17 / 40

17) In the circuit shown, R1 and R2 are identical resistors.

Which changes to the electrical components X and Y will increase the reading of the ammeter by the greatest amount?

1. D

2. B

3. C

4. A

18 / 40

18) A rubber ducky is released from the bottom of a pool of water. Almost immediately, it rises at a constant speed to reach the surface of the water. Which of the following best describes the resultant force acting on the rubber ducky?

1. upwards and equal to the rubber ducky’s weight

2. upwards and greater than the rubber ducky’s weight

3. zero

4. upwards and less than the rubber ducky’s weight

19 / 40

19) A combined bathroom unit of a heater and a lamp is controlled by one switch. The unit contains a 2 kW heater and a 100 W lamp. In one week, the lamp uses 1 kWh of electrical energy.

How much electrical energy is used by the heater alone?

1. 10 kWh

2. 20 kWh

3. 4 kWh

4. 2 kWh

20 / 40

20) A 4.0 m long uniform plank weighing 50 N balances on two pivots P and Q when a load of 40 N is placed at one end.

1. A

2. D

3. C

4. B

21 / 40

21) A gas is heated in a rigid sealed container. Which quantity does not change?

1. The frequency of collisions on the walls of the container by the gas particles.

2. The average force exerted on the walls of the container by the gas particles.

3. The average distance between the gas particles.

4. The average speed of the gas particles.

22 / 40

22) A transverse wave is produced on a rope. The diagram shows the rope at one instant. The wave travels at a speed of 4.0 m/s.

What are the wavelength and the frequency of the wave?

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

23 / 40

23) Which of the following correctly describes an action-reaction pair of forces?

1. The reaction force on a book resting on a table and the weight of the book.

2. A runner pushes backward on the ground and the ground pushes forwards on runner.

3. The pulling force acting on a trolley and the frictional force acting on the trolley.

4. The backward force acting on water by propeller and the resistive force acting on the boat.

24 / 40

24) An electric heater which is rated ‘240 V, 1500 W’ is connected to a 3-pin socket. Which of the following correctly describes the current in the neutral wire and the potential difference between the earth and neutral wire during normal operation?

1. A

2. D

3. C

4. B

25 / 40

25) The diagram shows two buoys P and Q sitting on a pond. A wave moves across the pond from left to right.

At the moment shown, buoy Q is at the crest and buoy P is at the trough. Which row describes the movement of the buoys during the next cycle of the wave?

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

26 / 40

26) Alpha, beta and gamma radiations have various depths of penetration in matter and different charges.

Which row best summarises the penetration and charge of each radiation?

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

27 / 40

27) The diagram below shows a manometer.

What is the pressure of the enclosed air in the manometer?

1. 120 mmHg

2. 200 mmHg

3. 550 mmHg

4. 80 mmHg

28 / 40

28) A horizontal beam of electrons passes between the two poles of a magnet.

In which direction is the beam deflected?

1. into the page

2. towards the south pole

3. out of the page

4. towards the north pole

29 / 40

29) Alex is jogging at constant speed beside a road. He sees the traffic lights in front of him turn amber, so he begins to jog at a lower constant speed. Which distance-time graph illustrates Alex’s motion?

1. C

2. D

3. B

4. A

30 / 40

30) The gravitational field strength on Earth is 9.8 N/ kg. The gravitational field strength on Mars is 3.7 N/ kg. The difference between the weight of an object on Earth and the weight of the same object on Mars is 25 N.

What is the mass of the object?

1. 1.9 kg

2. 2.6 kg`

3. 4.1 kg

4. 6.8 kg

31 / 40

31) The diagram shows two insulated wires, P and Q, each with the same amount of current flow.

Which region A, B, C or D has the strongest magnetic field out of the paper?

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

32 / 40

32) The diagram shows the rest position of a balancing toy near the edge of a table. Which position is most likely to be the center of gravity of the toy?

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

33 / 40

33) A student pushes the N-pole of a bar magnet into end Q of a long solenoid. An electromotive force and hence an induced current is induced in the solenoid and the galvanometer needle deflects to the left as shown.

Which of the following produces a deflection in the same direction?

1. pushing the N-pole into end P

2. pulling the S-pole out of end P

3. pushing the S-pole into end P

4. pulling the N-pole out of end Q

34 / 40

34) The diagram shows a simple A.C generator, consisting of a coil of wire WXYZ placed in between two magnets.

1. C

2. D

3. A

4. B

35 / 40

35) What is the function of the earth wire?

1. It closes the circuit so current may flow to operate a device.

2. It allows excessive charges to be stored to conserve energy

3. It is a high resistance wire to reduce the amount of current to a safe level.

4. It provides an alternative path for current to flow if a wiring fault occurs.

36 / 40

36) A neutral atom of an isotope has the nuclide notation 84𝐾36.

Which statement is correct?

1. There are 48 protons in the nucleus of the atom.

2. There are 36 electrons in the nucleus of the atom.

3. There are 45 neutrons in the nucleus of the atom.

4. There are 12 more neutrons than electrons in the atom.

37 / 40

37) Which of the following shows the outcome of installing the fuse in the neutral wire?

1. The filament in the fuse will not melt when excessive current flows, and the device will be disconnected from high electric potential.

2. The filament in the fuse will melt when excessive current flows, and the device will still be connected to high electric potential.

3. The filament in the fuse will melt when excessive current flows, and the device will be disconnected from high electric potential.

4. The filament in the fuse will not melt when excessive current flows, and the device will still be connected to high electric potential.

38 / 40

38) The diagram below shows light travelling from water and undergoing refraction.

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

39 / 40

39) The diagram shows an ideal transformer. An alternating current supply of 100 V is supplied to the primary coil and a current of 0.50 A flows through it.

1. A

2. D

3. C

4. B

40 / 40

40) Electromagnetic waves from the Sun are absorbed by a solar panel. These waves transfer energy electrically to a portable traffic light system.

A few solar panels with a total area 12 m2 were used to operate the traffic light system. 1.0 m2 of a panel receives 0.85 kJ of energy via electromagnetic waves from the Sun in 1.0 s.

If the efficiency of the panels is 16 %, how much power do they transfer electrically?

1. 2.2 kW

2. 1.6 kW

3. 64 kW

4. 160 kW

Your score is

The average score is 14%

Physics MCQ Paper 1 now carries a 30% weightage under the current syllabus.
This is a significant portion that can easily impact your final grade by 2–3 bands. To maximise your score, aim for full marks by doing plenty of targeted practice. It might make the difference between A1 and A2.

Never underestimate the difficulty of multiple-choice questions — they are often designed to test your precision and attention to detail. Always check your answers carefully, manage your time wisely, and stay alert for tricky questions.

How are the questions being set?

-Knowledge with Understanding, approximately 45% of the marks with approximately 15% allocated to recall.

-Handling Information and Solving Problems, approximately 55% of the marks.