O Levels Physics Mcq Simulation

This is a simulation for your MCQ physics paper.

The Actual paper is 40 questions and 1 hour long.

You will only have 50 minutes for this simulation. 40 minutes to do and 10 minutes to check your work.

Times up!

O level Pure physics

1 / 40

1) The following circuit is set up

What is the reading on the ammeter?

1. 1.5 A

2. 0.33 A

3. 0.9 A

4. 3.0 A

2 / 40

2) A block of wood of mass 2.0 kg is pushed along the horizontal flat surface of a bench with a force of 4.0 N. It moves at constant speed. When the pushing force is increased to 12 N, what is the acceleration of the block?

1. 6.0m/s^2

2. 4.0m/s^2

3. 0m/s^2

4. 8.0m/s^2

3 / 40

3) Wiping the body of a patient who has a high fever with a wet towel makes use of the cooling effect of evaporation. When liquid evaporates, some liquid molecules in the liquid escape.

Which molecules in the liquid escape?

1. the molecules at the surface of the liquid with more energy than others

2. the molecules at the bottom of the liquid with less energy than others

3. the molecules at the surface of the liquid with less energy than others

4. the molecules at the bottom of the liquid with more energy than others

4 / 40

4) Which of the following statements (s) is/are true for an object being heated?

I. Its temperature always increases.

II. Energy in the internal store always increases.

III. Energy in the internal and potential stores cannot increase at the same time.

1. All of the above

2. II and III only

3. II only

4. I and II only

5 / 40

5) A block of gold of mass m has a specific heat capacity of c. A block of copper of mass 2m has a specific heat capacity of 3c. Both metals receive the same quantity of heat and the temperature of the copper rises by 10 °C.

What is the temperature rise of the gold block?

1. 20 oC

2. 15 oC

3. 60 oC

4. 30 oC

6 / 40

6) The diagram shows a transverse wave travelling along a rope at the time t = 0 s. A point on the rope is labelled X.

The period of the wave is 5.0 s.

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

7 / 40

7) Eskimos build igloos as temporary shelter in extremely cold places such as the Arctic. The diagram shows a cross-section of an igloo. The entrance is dug deep enough (lower than the sleeping area) to create a cold sink

Which statement about the air in the igloo is correct?

1. The air in the igloo is heated up by conduction only.

2. Warm air in the cold sink expands, becomes denser and rises out of the cold sink to heat up the rest of the igloo.

3. Cold air is denser and remains in the cold sink.

4. The warm air in the igloo is less dense, contracts and rises.

8 / 40

8) The graph shows the total resistive force that acts on a car of mass 830 kg over a period of time. The car is at rest at t = 0 s. A constant driving force of 2500 N acts on the car from t = 2 s to t = 24 s.

Which statement is incorrect?

1. The car is stationary from t = 0 s to t = 2 s.

2. The acceleration of the car is zero after t = 16 s.

3. The resultant force acting on the car increases from t = 2 s to t = 16 s.

4. The acceleration of the car is 3.0 m/s2 at t = 2 s.

9 / 40

9) Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency while travelling through a vacuum?

1. gamma rays

2. light waves

3. microwaves

4. infra red waves

10 / 40

10) A plastic tube is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.4. Light travelling in the plastic tube strikes the inside surface at an angle of incidence of 70°. The light undergoes total internal reflection.

1. D

2. B

3. C

4. A

11 / 40

11) In the circuit shown, R1 and R2 are identical resistors.

Which changes to the electrical components X and Y will increase the reading of the ammeter by the greatest amount?

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

12 / 40

12) A water wave travels from deep water to shallow water in a ripple tank as shown in the diagram.

Waves in the deep water have a wavelength of 3.6 cm and a speed of 18 cm /s.

The speed of the waves in shallow water is 15 cm / s. What is the wavelength of the waves in the shallow water?

1. 5.0 cm

2. 3.6 cm

3. 4.3 cm

4. 3.0 cm

13 / 40

13) Which of the following best describes the conventional current and its unit?

1. It is the rate of flow of positive charges and its unit is the ampere.

2. It is the rate of flow of positive charges and its unit is the coulomb.

3. It is the rate of flow of negative charges and its unit is the ampere.

4. It is the rate of flow of negative charges and its unit is the coulomb.

14 / 40

14) Which of the following correctly describes an action-reaction pair of forces?

1. A runner pushes backward on the ground and the ground pushes forwards on runner.

2. The reaction force on a book resting on a table and the weight of the book.

3. The backward force acting on water by propeller and the resistive force acting on the boat.

4. The pulling force acting on a trolley and the frictional force acting on the trolley.

15 / 40

15) A loudspeaker and a microphone are placed side by side in front of a wall. The loudspeaker makes a sound that is detected by the microphone. The microphone is connected to a device known as an oscilloscope, which is set so that each horizontal division on its screen represents a duration of 0.01 s. The microphone detects the original sound and the echo.

The speed of sound in air is 300 m/s.

What is the distance between the loudspeaker and the wall?

1. 6.0 m

2. 24 m

3. 48 m

4. 12 m

16 / 40

16) A non-uniform object is placed on an inclined plane. The object is just about to topple. Which position is most likely to be its centre of gravity?

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. C

17 / 40

17) The diagram shows two buoys P and Q sitting on a pond. A wave moves across the pond from left to right.

At the moment shown, buoy Q is at the crest and buoy P is at the trough. Which row describes the movement of the buoys during the next cycle of the wave?

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

18 / 40

18) Two identical beakers contain the same mass of liquid.
Each beaker contains a different liquid.

Liquid Q has a density ρ.
What is the density of liquid P

1. 9ρ

2. ρ ÷ 3

3. 3ρ

4. ρ

19 / 40

19) A student pushes the N-pole of a bar magnet into end Q of a long solenoid. An electromotive force and hence an induced current is induced in the solenoid and the galvanometer needle deflects to the left as shown.

Which of the following produces a deflection in the same direction?

1. pushing the N-pole into end P

2. pulling the S-pole out of end P

3. pulling the N-pole out of end Q

4. pushing the S-pole into end P

20 / 40

20) A student investigates the changes that take place as molten wax solidifies.

Which of the following correctly describe these changes?

1. No transfer of energy but a change in temperature

2. A transfer of energy and a change in temperature

3. A transfer of energy but no change in temperature

4. No transfer of energy and no change in temperature

21 / 40

21) A rubber ducky is released from the bottom of a pool of water. Almost immediately, it rises at a constant speed to reach the surface of the water. Which of the following best describes the resultant force acting on the rubber ducky?

1. zero

2. upwards and greater than the rubber ducky’s weight

3. upwards and equal to the rubber ducky’s weight

4. upwards and less than the rubber ducky’s weight

22 / 40

22) The diagram shows the rest position of a balancing toy near the edge of a table. Which position is most likely to be the center of gravity of the toy?

1. A

2. D

3. B

4. C

23 / 40

23) An electron is placed at the point N in the electric field as shown below where point N is the centre of two identical positive charges.

What is the motion of the electron?

1. moves upwards

2. does not move

3. moves out of the plane of paper

4. moves downwards

24 / 40

24) The diagram shows the speed-time graph of a moving object over a period of 50 s.

What is the average speed of the object when it is decelerating?

1. 11 m/s

2. 10 m/s

3. 12 m/s

4. 17 m/s

25 / 40

25) A gas is in a sealed container of constant volume. The gas is heated and the pressure of the gas on the walls of the container increases.

How do the particles of the gas cause this increase in pressure?

1. They hit the container more frequently.

2. They expand.

3. They vibrate faster.

4. They hit each other more frequently.

26 / 40

26) Light in a vacuum strikes a glass surface at an angle of incidence of 42 °. In the glass, the angle of refraction is 29 °.

What is the speed of light in glass?

1. 2.1 × 10^8 m / s

2. 3.0 × 10^8 m / s

3. 4.1 × 10^8 m / s

4. 2.2× 10^8 m / s

27 / 40

27) A parachutist falls from a stationary balloon at time t = 0 s. The velocity-time graph for the parachutist from time t = 0 s until the time when he is just above the ground is shown.

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

28 / 40

28) An electric heater which is rated ‘240 V, 1500 W’ is connected to a 3-pin socket. Which of the following correctly describes the current in the neutral wire and the potential difference between the earth and neutral wire during normal operation?

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

29 / 40

29) A computer engineer wants the speed of a fan to increase when the temperature inside a computer increases. The engineer knows that a larger current causes the fan to turn more quickly.

Which component should be placed at X to make this happen?

1. a relay

2. a thermistor

3. a variable resistor

4. a transformer

30 / 40

30) A 4.0 m long uniform plank weighing 50 N balances on two pivots P and Q when a load of 40 N is placed at one end.

1. C

2. D

3. A

4. B

31 / 40

31) A solid of 2.0 kg is heated by a 2000 W heater. The graph of temperature against time for the substance is shown in the diagram.

What is the specific latent heat of fusion of the solid?

1. 2.0 kJ / kg

2. 300 kJ / kg

3. 30 kJ / kg

4. 150 kJ / kg

32 / 40

32) A drone moves eastwards and arrives at a point due east of its starting point.

The drone has a speed of V in still air.

A wind of speed W is blowing from north to south, affecting the drone.

Which diagram correctly represents the resultant velocity, R, of the drone?

1. D

2. B

3. C

4. A

33 / 40

33) James stands at a point J between two parallel walls as shown in the diagram below and fires a pistol.

He hears the first echo after 0.40 s and the second echo after 1.0 s.

How long after firing the pistol will James hear the third echo?

1. 2.8 s

2. 0.8 s

3. 2.0 s

4. 1.4 s

34 / 40

34) A uniform metre rule is supported by vertical wires P and Q and remains horizontal as shown in diagram 1. The tension in each wire is 1 N. When a weight of 4 N is hung from the metre rule at the position as shown in diagram 2, the tension in Q becomes 2.3 N while the metre rule remains horizontal.

What is the distance d of the weight 4 N from end P?

1. 32.5 cm

2. 57.5 cm

3. 67.5 cm

4. Cannot be found as tension in P is unknown

35 / 40

35) A simple electromagnet can be made by winding a wire round an iron nail and supplying a current through a cell as shown in the diagram below.

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

36 / 40

36) The diagram shows a simple d.c. electric motor.

When the switch is closed, which of the following statements is correct?

I. A current will flow round the coil in the direction PQRT.

II The coil will rotate in a clockwise direction when viewed from side PT.

III The split-ring commutator reverses the current after every complete cycle.

1. II and III

2. I only

3. I and III

4. III only

37 / 40

37) The diagram shows a manometer containing mercury that is sealed at one end.

What happens to the height h when the manometer is taken to the top of a mountain?

1. It increases, because atmospheric pressure decreases.

2. It increases, because atmospheric pressure increases.

3. It decreases, because atmospheric pressure increases.

4. It decreases, because atmospheric pressure decreases.

38 / 40

38) A current of 4.5 A flows through the electrical components of a refrigerator when connected to a source of 240 V. It costs $0.35 for 1 kW h of electrical energy.

How much will it cost to keep the refrigerator running for 1 week?

1. $0.05

2. $2.25

3. $63.50

4. $378

39 / 40

39) The ends of three metal rods are tested by holding end Q of rod 1 close to each end of rods 2 and 3.

The results are as follows:

End Q attracts end R.

End Q attracts end S.

End Q attracts end T.

End Q repels end U.

Which of the metal rods is a magnet?

1. rod 2 and rod 3 only

2. rod 1 only

3. rod 2 only

4. rod 1 and rod 3 only

40 / 40

40) The diagram shows two insulated wires, P and Q, each with the same amount of current flow.

Which region A, B, C or D has the strongest magnetic field out of the paper?

1. B

2. C

3. A

4. D

Your score is

The average score is 14%

Physics MCQ Paper 1 now carries a 30% weightage under the current syllabus.
This is a significant portion that can easily impact your final grade by 2–3 bands. To maximise your score, aim for full marks by doing plenty of targeted practice. It might make the difference between A1 and A2.

Never underestimate the difficulty of multiple-choice questions — they are often designed to test your precision and attention to detail. Always check your answers carefully, manage your time wisely, and stay alert for tricky questions.

How are the questions being set?

-Knowledge with Understanding, approximately 45% of the marks with approximately 15% allocated to recall.

-Handling Information and Solving Problems, approximately 55% of the marks.