O Levels Physics Mcq Simulation

This is a simulation for your MCQ physics paper.

The Actual paper is 40 questions and 1 hour long.

You will only have 50 minutes for this simulation. 40 minutes to do and 10 minutes to check your work.

Times up!

O level Pure physics

1 / 40

1) Pendulum X makes 25 complete oscillations in 10 s. Pendulum Y makes 15 complete oscillations in 15 s. Both pendulums were displaced by a small angle before their oscillations.

Which statement must be true?

1. The string of pendulum Y is longer than that of pendulum X.

2. The mass of the bob of pendulum Y is smaller than that of pendulum X.

3. Pendulum Y has a shorter period than pendulum X.

4. The angle of swing of release for pendulum Y is smaller than that of pendulum X.

2 / 40

2) The diagram shows a network of resistors. Each resistor has a resistance of 6.0 Ω.

What is the total resistance of the network between points X and Y?

1. 3.0

2. 18

3. 7.2

4. 5.0

3 / 40

3) In the circuit shown below, two resistors R1 and R2, a motor M and lamp L are connected to a suitable voltage supply.

1. The motor uses the greatest amount of electrical energy per unit time.

2. If the motor is removed from the circuit and replaced with a wire, the current through each component would be two times the existing value.

3. The lamp has the least amount of current passing through compared to other components.

4. The resistance of R1 is twice the resistance of R2.

4 / 40

4) Which of the following correctly describes an action-reaction pair of forces?

1. A runner pushes backward on the ground and the ground pushes forwards on runner.

2. The pulling force acting on a trolley and the frictional force acting on the trolley.

3. The reaction force on a book resting on a table and the weight of the book.

4. The backward force acting on water by propeller and the resistive force acting on the boat.

5 / 40

5) The diagram shows two buoys P and Q sitting on a pond. A wave moves across the pond from left to right.

At the moment shown, buoy Q is at the crest and buoy P is at the trough. Which row describes the movement of the buoys during the next cycle of the wave?

1. C

2. A

3. B

4. D

6 / 40

6) A parachutist jumps off a plane. After 1.0 min, he opens the parachute and his velocity decreases at a decreasing rate. The following statements are possible explanations why the velocity of the parachutist decreases at a decreasing rate.

(I) The velocity decreases as such the air resistance acting on the parachute decreases.

(II) The tension exerting on the parachutist decreases.

(III) The force of the parachute acting on the air increases.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. (I) only

2. (III) only

3. (II) only

4. (I) and (II) only

7 / 40

7) The displacement–time graph for an air particle in the path of a sound wave is shown.

Which property of the sound wave must be increasing?

1. amplitude

2. wavelength

3. period

4. frequency

8 / 40

8) In the circuit shown, the battery has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 6.0 V and negligible internal resistance. The three resistors each have resistance R.

The total power dissipated in the resistor network is 24 W. What is the value of R?

1. 1.0 ohms

2. 1.5 ohms

3. 2.3 ohms

4. 0.5 ohms

9 / 40

9) The diagram shows an ideal transformer. An alternating current supply of 100 V is supplied to the primary coil and a current of 0.50 A flows through it.

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. A

10 / 40

10) Which instrument is most suitable for measuring the internal diameter of a pipe?

1. measuring cylinder

2. digital micrometer

3. digital calipers

4. manometer

11 / 40

11) In nuclear ……1……, hydrogen nuclei ……2…… to form helium nuclei, releasing energy.

Which words correctly complete blanks 1 and 2?

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. C

12 / 40

12) A magnet is pushed slowly into a coil, and there is a current in the coil in the direction shown.

The magnet is then pulled out quickly from the same end of the coil.

What happens to the direction and the size of the current?

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. D

13 / 40

13) Alpha, beta and gamma radiations have various depths of penetration in matter and different charges.

Which row best summarises the penetration and charge of each radiation?

1. B

2. D

3. A

4. C

14 / 40

14) An electric heater which is rated ‘240 V, 1500 W’ is connected to a 3-pin socket. Which of the following correctly describes the current in the neutral wire and the potential difference between the earth and neutral wire during normal operation?

1. D

2. B

3. A

4. C

15 / 40

15) An object travels for 20 s with a constant speed of 10 m/s. For the next 10 s, it accelerates uniformly to 20 m/s.

What is the average speed of the object during the last 15 s of its motion?

1. 12.5 m/s

2. 15.0 m/s

3. 13.3 m/s

4. 11.7 m/s

16 / 40

16) Smoke detectors may make use of radioactive emissions to function. Which of the following best explains why alpha-particles are used in smoke detectors?

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

17 / 40

17) A box of mass 2.0 kg is pushed along a 12 m ramp with a force F of 15.0 N and accelerates from point P to point Q. The speed of the box is 2.0 m / s at P and the average frictional force acting on the box is 4.0 N throughout the motion. The gravitational field strength is 10 N / kg.

What is the speed of the box at point Q?

1. 5.7 m / s

2. 8.0 m / s

3. 16 m / s

4. 6.0 m / s

18 / 40

18) A block of gold of mass m has a specific heat capacity of c. A block of copper of mass 2m has a specific heat capacity of 3c. Both metals receive the same quantity of heat and the temperature of the copper rises by 10 °C.

What is the temperature rise of the gold block?

1. 20 oC

2. 30 oC

3. 15 oC

4. 60 oC

19 / 40

19) Nuclear fusion is a reaction that can take place in the sun.
Which row describes this reaction?

1. A

2. C

3. B

4. D

20 / 40

20) The front wheel of a car is turned in a anticlockwise direction by the engine as the car accelerates towards the left, as shown in the diagram. There is a force of friction between the wheel and the road.

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. B

21 / 40

21) The gravitational field strength on Earth is 9.8 N/ kg. The gravitational field strength on Mars is 3.7 N/ kg. The difference between the weight of an object on Earth and the weight of the same object on Mars is 25 N.

What is the mass of the object?

1. 6.8 kg

2. 1.9 kg

3. 2.6 kg`

4. 4.1 kg

22 / 40

22) In a game of softball, a player strikes a ball using a bat, exerting a force F on the ball.

Which of the following, with F, forms an action-reaction pair?

1. the force of the air on the ball

2. the force of the ball on air

3. the force of the ball on the bat

4. the force of the Earth on the ball

23 / 40

23) An experiment is carried out as shown in the diagram.

The ice takes a long time to melt, even though the water at the top of the boiling tube is boiling. Which statement best explains this?

1. The wire gauze prevents energy transferred by heating from reaching the ice.

2. Hot water at the bottom of the boiling tube rises to the top.

3. Water is a poor conductor of heat.

4. Cold water at the top of the boiling tube sinks to the bottom.

24 / 40

24) A hot metal plate is placed near to a cold metal plate.

Which row shows the colour for the hot plate and for cold plate that causes the temperature of cold plate to increase most slowly?

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

25 / 40

25) A water wave moves from deep water to shallow water. Its speed decreases in shallow water. Which statement correctly describes the frequency and wavelength of the wave in the shallow water?

1. Frequency decreases while wavelength remains unchanged.

2. Both frequency and wavelength remain unchanged.

3. Frequency remains unchanged while wavelength decreases.

4. Both frequency and wavelength decrease.

26 / 40

26) The diagram below shows light travelling from water and undergoing refraction.

1. D

2. B

3. C

4. A

27 / 40

27) An electron is placed at the point N in the electric field as shown below where point N is the centre of two identical positive charges.

What is the motion of the electron?

1. moves upwards

2. moves downwards

3. does not move

4. moves out of the plane of paper

28 / 40

28) Which of the following shows the outcome of installing the fuse in the neutral wire?

1. The filament in the fuse will melt when excessive current flows, and the device will be disconnected from high electric potential.

2. The filament in the fuse will not melt when excessive current flows, and the device will be disconnected from high electric potential.

3. The filament in the fuse will melt when excessive current flows, and the device will still be connected to high electric potential.

4. The filament in the fuse will not melt when excessive current flows, and the device will still be connected to high electric potential.

29 / 40

29) A resultant force acts on an object and causes it to move in a straight line. The graph shows how the resultant force varies with time.

1. B

2. C

3. D

4. A

30 / 40

30) A pulse of sound is transmitted vertically downward from the bottom of a stationery ship, and the time taken for its echo to be detected back at the ship is recorded. The ship repeats this process at another location. The new time recorded is 1.5 times as long as the time taken at the first location.

Which of the following is correct?

1. The speed of sound at the original location is 1.5 times as fast as at the new location.

2. The depth at the new location is 1.5 times as deep as the original location.

3. The speed of sound at the original location is 0.75 times as fast as at the new location.

4. The depth at the new location is 0.75 times as deep as the original location.

31 / 40

31) A gymnast of mass 60 kg lands on a trampoline. If he rebounds upwards with an acceleration of 0.60 m/s^2, what is the maximum force exerted by the trampoline on the gymnast?

1. 672 N

2. 564 N

3. 36 N

4. 636 N

32 / 40

32) The diagram below shows a water manometer used to measure the pressure inside a gas pipe. The density of water is 1000 kg m-3 and gravitational field strength is 10 N kg-1.

Find the pressure of the gas supply in Pa.

1. 520 Pa above atmospheric pressure

2. 380 Pa above atmospheric pressure

3. 380 Pa

4. 520 Pa

33 / 40

33) A current of 4.5 A flows through the electrical components of a refrigerator when connected to a source of 240 V. It costs $0.35 for 1 kW h of electrical energy.

How much will it cost to keep the refrigerator running for 1 week?

1. $63.50

2. $2.25

3. $0.05

4. $378

34 / 40

34)

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

35 / 40

35) Ultrasound is high-pitched and cannot be heard by human ears. However, ultrasound has many uses.

Which of the following is/are the correct use/s of ultrasound?

(1) Checking for cracks or damages in materials.

(2) Medical scanning of organs and tissues.

(3) Radar systems used by air traffic controllers to detect the location of an aeroplane.

1. (2) only

2. (1) only

3. (1) and (2) only

4. (1) and (3) only

36 / 40

36) A 4.0 m long uniform plank weighing 50 N balances on two pivots P and Q when a load of 40 N is placed at one end.

1. C

2. D

3. B

4. A

37 / 40

37) A small coil is connected to a galvanometer as shown below.

When the magnet is allowed to move towards the coil, which of the following statements
shows the current flow?

1. momentarily from Y to X

2. momentarily from X to Y

3. continuously from Y to X

4. continuously from X to Y

38 / 40

38) A 3-pin plug is connected to a heater with a rating of ‘200V, 1200 W’.

Which of the following is/are correct?

1 . A 5A fuse should be used inside the heater.

2 . The fuse should be placed on the brown wire of the cable.

3 . The neutral wire should be connected to the metal case of the heater.

1. 2 only

2. 2 and 3 only

3. 1 and 2 only

4. 3 only

39 / 40

39) A 5.0 W lamp is switched on for 180 s. It transfers 600 J to the internal store (thermal) of the surroundings. What is the efficiency of the lamp?

1. 43 %

2. 70 %

3. 33 %

4. 67 %

40 / 40

40) The diagram shows a working barometer. Which of the following would not cause the height h of the mercury column to vary?

1. Leakage of air into the tube.

2. Change in the temperature.

3. Change in gravitational field strength.

4. Adding mercury to the trough.

Your score is

The average score is 14%

Physics MCQ Paper 1 now carries a 30% weightage under the current syllabus.
This is a significant portion that can easily impact your final grade by 2–3 bands. To maximise your score, aim for full marks by doing plenty of targeted practice. It might make the difference between A1 and A2.

Never underestimate the difficulty of multiple-choice questions — they are often designed to test your precision and attention to detail. Always check your answers carefully, manage your time wisely, and stay alert for tricky questions.

How are the questions being set?

-Knowledge with Understanding, approximately 45% of the marks with approximately 15% allocated to recall.

-Handling Information and Solving Problems, approximately 55% of the marks.