O Levels Physics Mcq Simulation

This is a simulation for your MCQ physics paper.

The Actual paper is 40 questions and 1 hour long.

You will only have 50 minutes for this simulation. 40 minutes to do and 10 minutes to check your work.

Times up!

O level Pure physics

1 / 40

1) An object travels for 20 s with a constant speed of 10 m/s. For the next 10 s, it accelerates uniformly to 20 m/s.

What is the average speed of the object during the last 15 s of its motion?

1. 12.5 m/s

2. 13.3 m/s

3. 11.7 m/s

4. 15.0 m/s

2 / 40

2) A pulse of sound is transmitted vertically downward from the bottom of a stationery ship, and the time taken for its echo to be detected back at the ship is recorded. The ship repeats this process at another location. The new time recorded is 1.5 times as long as the time taken at the first location.

Which of the following is correct?

1. The speed of sound at the original location is 0.75 times as fast as at the new location.

2. The depth at the new location is 1.5 times as deep as the original location.

3. The speed of sound at the original location is 1.5 times as fast as at the new location.

4. The depth at the new location is 0.75 times as deep as the original location.

3 / 40

3) A man pushes a heavy box with a weight of 50 N along a rough ground with a force of 30 N. The box moves at constant speed.

What is the resultant force acting on the box?

1. 30 N

2. 80 N

3. 0 N

4. 50 N

4 / 40

4) The half-life of a certain radioactive element is such that 7/8 of a given quantity decays in 12 days.

What fraction remains undecayed after 24 days?

1. 1/128

2. 1/64

3. 1/32

4. 1/16

5 / 40

5) A crate of oranges is pulled across a rough surface by a force, causing the crate to accelerate
at 1.5 m/s2. The combined mass of the crate and oranges is 24 kg.

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

6 / 40

6) A gas is in a sealed container of constant volume. The gas is heated and the pressure of the gas on the walls of the container increases.

How do the particles of the gas cause this increase in pressure?

1. They hit the container more frequently.

2. They expand.

3. They hit each other more frequently.

4. They vibrate faster.

7 / 40

7) A gas supply is connected to a mercury barometer. The same gas supply is then connected to a water barometer.

The density of mercury is 13 600 kg / m3 and the density of water is 1000 kg / m3. What is the value of h?

1. 0.82 m

2. 82 m

3. 68 m

4. 0.68 m

8 / 40

8) Smoke detectors may make use of radioactive emissions to function. Which of the following best explains why alpha-particles are used in smoke detectors?

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

9 / 40

9) A light dependent resistor (LDR) and a 500 Ω resistor form a potential divider between voltage lines held at +30 V and 0 V as shown in the diagram. The resistance of the LDR is 1000 Ω in the dark but drops to 100 Ω in bright light.

What is the corresponding change of potential difference between X and Y when the LDR is placed in a dark room and then move to a bright room?

1. a fall from 30 V to 5 V

2. a rise from 5 V to 30 V

3. a fall from 20 V to 5 V

4. a rise from 5 V to 20 V

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10) Electricity is transmitted over large distances through high-voltage power cables running alternating current. What are the advantages of using high-voltage cables and alternating current?

1. D

2. B

3. A

4. C

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11) The diagrams show four table lamps resting on a table. The position of the centre of mass of
each lamp is labelled X.
Which lamp is the least stable?

1. B

2. A

3. D

4. C

12 / 40

12) A parachutist jumps off a plane. After 1.0 min, he opens the parachute and his velocity decreases at a decreasing rate. The following statements are possible explanations why the velocity of the parachutist decreases at a decreasing rate.

(I) The velocity decreases as such the air resistance acting on the parachute decreases.

(II) The tension exerting on the parachutist decreases.

(III) The force of the parachute acting on the air increases.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. (III) only

2. (II) only

3. (I) and (II) only

4. (I) only

13 / 40

13) A resultant force acts on an object and causes it to move in a straight line. The graph shows how the resultant force varies with time.

1. D

2. A

3. C

4. B

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14) An insulated beaker contains 300 g of water, initially at 30 °C. Water at 100 °C is added until the temperature of the mixture reaches 50 °C. The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J/(g°C).

How much water is added?

1. 60 g

2. 180 g

3. 750 g

4. 120 g

15 / 40

15) Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency while travelling through a vacuum?

1. light waves

2. microwaves

3. infra red waves

4. gamma rays

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16) The potential difference across a metal wire is kept constant. The length l and the diameter d of the wire are both varied. The type of metal is kept the same. How is the resistance of the wire related to l and d?

1. It is inversely proportional to l and directly proportional to d.

2. It is directly proportional to l and inversely proportional to d.

3. It is directly proportional to l and inversely proportional to d2.

4. It is inversely proportional to l and directly proportional to d2.

17 / 40

17) The circuit diagram shows a 2.0 Ω resistor connected in series with a parallel arrangement of a 2.0 Ω resistor and a 5.0 Ω resistor.

The current flowing through the 5.0 Ω resistor is 1.0 A. What is the reading on the voltmeter?

1. 7.0 V

2. 12 V

3. 17 V

4. 10 V

18 / 40

18) A beam of radiation enters a region in which there is a very strong, uniform magnetic field directed into the page. All the equipment is in a vacuum.

The beam splits and the curved path and the straight path taken by the radiation in the magnetic field are shown on the diagram. What types of radiation are in the incident beam?

1. β-particles and γ-rays only

2. α-particles and β-particles only

3. α-particles, β-particles and γ-rays

4. α-particles and γ-rays only

19 / 40

19) A converging lens L acts as a magnifying glass when an object AB is placed 4.0 cm from the centre of the lens. The image CD is 6.0 cm from A. Focal length of the lens is 6.0 cm.

What are the characteristics of the image formed when the object is placed 12.0 cm away from the centre of the lens ?

1. virtual and same size as object

2. real and same size as object

3. virtual and diminished

4. real and diminished

20 / 40

20) A ray of light is incident on a plastic block in air, at an angle of incidence i. The refractive index of the plastic is n. The light ray refracts along the plastic-air boundary when it reaches X.

1. D

2. A

3. B

4. C

21 / 40

21) A solar panel is used to recharge a battery. The solar panel produces 0.80 W of electrical
power. The panel is 20% efficient.

What is the power input of the sunlight onto the solar panel?

1. 4 W

2. 16 W

3. 8 W

4. 0.16 W

22 / 40

22) A non-uniform object is placed on an inclined plane. The object is just about to topple. Which position is most likely to be its centre of gravity?

1. C

2. B

3. A

4. D

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23) A car of mass 1500 kg is towing a trailer of mass 1100 kg along a level road. The acceleration of the car is 1.30 m/s2. Ignoring friction and air resistance, what is the driving force on the car?

1. 1950 N

2. 1430 N

3. 3380 N

4. 520 N

24 / 40

24) A neutral atom of an isotope has the nuclide notation 84𝐾36.

Which statement is correct?

1. There are 12 more neutrons than electrons in the atom.

2. There are 45 neutrons in the nucleus of the atom.

3. There are 48 protons in the nucleus of the atom.

4. There are 36 electrons in the nucleus of the atom.

25 / 40

25) The diagram below shows the plug of an old electric iron wired wrongly.

What happens when the electric iron is plugged into the electrical socket?

1. The electric iron does not work.

2. The metal case becomes live.

3. The fuse in the plug blows.

4. The electric iron catches fire.

26 / 40

26) A gymnast of mass 60 kg lands on a trampoline. If he rebounds upwards with an acceleration of 0.60 m/s^2, what is the maximum force exerted by the trampoline on the gymnast?

1. 672 N

2. 636 N

3. 36 N

4. 564 N

27 / 40

27) A loudspeaker and a microphone are placed side by side in front of a wall. The loudspeaker makes a sound that is detected by the microphone. The microphone is connected to a device known as an oscilloscope, which is set so that each horizontal division on its screen represents a duration of 0.01 s. The microphone detects the original sound and the echo.

The speed of sound in air is 300 m/s.

What is the distance between the loudspeaker and the wall?

1. 48 m

2. 12 m

3. 6.0 m

4. 24 m

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28) A magnet is pushed slowly into a coil, and there is a current in the coil in the direction shown.

The magnet is then pulled out quickly from the same end of the coil.

What happens to the direction and the size of the current?

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. A

29 / 40

29) A plastic tube is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.4. Light travelling in the plastic tube strikes the inside surface at an angle of incidence of 70°. The light undergoes total internal reflection.

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. C

30 / 40

30) A student pushes the N-pole of a bar magnet into end Q of a long solenoid. An electromotive force and hence an induced current is induced in the solenoid and the galvanometer needle deflects to the left as shown.

Which of the following produces a deflection in the same direction?

1. pulling the N-pole out of end Q

2. pulling the S-pole out of end P

3. pushing the S-pole into end P

4. pushing the N-pole into end P

31 / 40

31) A combined bathroom unit of a heater and a lamp is controlled by one switch. The unit contains a 2 kW heater and a 100 W lamp. In one week, the lamp uses 1 kWh of electrical energy.

How much electrical energy is used by the heater alone?

1. 2 kWh

2. 20 kWh

3. 10 kWh

4. 4 kWh

32 / 40

32) A hot metal plate is placed near to a cold metal plate.

Which row shows the colour for the hot plate and for cold plate that causes the temperature of cold plate to increase most slowly?

1. B

2. D

3. C

4. A

33 / 40

33) A current of 4.5 A flows through the electrical components of a refrigerator when connected to a source of 240 V. It costs $0.35 for 1 kW h of electrical energy.

How much will it cost to keep the refrigerator running for 1 week?

1. $378

2. $63.50

3. $0.05

4. $2.25

34 / 40

34) A beam of electrons moves in a straight path through a magnetic field with an initial velocity, v. The electrons are deflected as shown.

What is the direction of the magnetic field?

1. out of the paper

2. to the left

3. into the paper

4. to the right

35 / 40

35) Which statement about electromagnetic waves is correct?

1. Visible light can damage human proteins and DNA.

2. Microwaves are used in satellite communications.

3. Infrared rays are used in sunbeds for artificial sun tanning.

4. X-rays are used to check for counterfeit notes.

36 / 40

36) A student investigates the changes that take place as molten wax solidifies.

Which of the following correctly describe these changes?

1. A transfer of energy and a change in temperature

2. No transfer of energy and no change in temperature

3. No transfer of energy but a change in temperature

4. A transfer of energy but no change in temperature

37 / 40

37) The diagram shows two insulated wires, P and Q, each with the same amount of current flow.

Which region A, B, C or D has the strongest magnetic field out of the paper?

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

38 / 40

38) A horizontal beam of electrons passes between the two poles of a magnet.

In which direction is the beam deflected?

1. out of the page

2. towards the north pole

3. into the page

4. towards the south pole

39 / 40

39) A 0.30 kW heater is used to heat a well-insulated 3.0 kg mass of copper for 5 minutes.

The temperature rises by 75 oC.

What is the specific heat capacity of copper?

1. 0.0067 J/(kg oC)

2. 6.7 J/(kg oC)

3. 0.40 J/(kg oC)

4. 400 J/(kg oC)

40 / 40

40) The diagram shows a network of resistors. Each resistor has a resistance of 6.0 Ω.

What is the total resistance of the network between points X and Y?

1. 7.2

2. 18

3. 5.0

4. 3.0

Your score is

The average score is 14%

Physics MCQ Paper 1 now carries a 30% weightage under the current syllabus.
This is a significant portion that can easily impact your final grade by 2–3 bands. To maximise your score, aim for full marks by doing plenty of targeted practice. It might make the difference between A1 and A2.

Never underestimate the difficulty of multiple-choice questions — they are often designed to test your precision and attention to detail. Always check your answers carefully, manage your time wisely, and stay alert for tricky questions.

How are the questions being set?

-Knowledge with Understanding, approximately 45% of the marks with approximately 15% allocated to recall.

-Handling Information and Solving Problems, approximately 55% of the marks.