O Levels Physics Mcq Simulation

This is a simulation for your MCQ physics paper.

The Actual paper is 40 questions and 1 hour long.

You will only have 50 minutes for this simulation. 40 minutes to do and 10 minutes to check your work.

Times up!

O level Pure physics

1 / 40

1) The diagram shows a transverse wave travelling along a rope at the time t = 0 s. A point on the rope is labelled X.

The period of the wave is 5.0 s.

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. C

2 / 40

2) Which type of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency while travelling through a vacuum?

1. microwaves

2. light waves

3. gamma rays

4. infra red waves

3 / 40

3) A transverse wave is produced on a rope. The diagram shows the rope at one instant. The wave travels at a speed of 4.0 m/s.

What are the wavelength and the frequency of the wave?

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

4 / 40

4) The diagram shows two buoys P and Q sitting on a pond. A wave moves across the pond from left to right.

At the moment shown, buoy Q is at the crest and buoy P is at the trough. Which row describes the movement of the buoys during the next cycle of the wave?

1. A

2. D

3. B

4. C

5 / 40

5) The diagram shows an object on the principal axis of a converging (convex) lens. F is the principal focus of the lens.

Where is the image formed by the lens?

1. at Q

2. between F and O

3. to the right of Q

4. between F and Q

6 / 40

6) A ray of light passes from glass to air. In glass, the speed of light is 1.8 × 10^8 m/s.

What is the critical angle for light passing from glass to air?

1. 18 degrees

2. 30 degrees

3. 37 degrees

4. 42 degrees

7 / 40

7) Bats produce ultrasound to navigate.

What is the possible frequency range of ultrasound waves?

1. 0 Hz to 20 Hz

2. 20 Hz to 20 kHz

3. 20 Hz to 1200 Hz

4. 20 kHz to 120 kHz

8 / 40

8) The diagram below shows light travelling from water and undergoing refraction.

1. C

2. D

3. A

4. B

9 / 40

9) A water wave travels from deep water to shallow water in a ripple tank as shown in the diagram.

Waves in the deep water have a wavelength of 3.6 cm and a speed of 18 cm /s.

The speed of the waves in shallow water is 15 cm / s. What is the wavelength of the waves in the shallow water?

1. 4.3 cm

2. 3.6 cm

3. 3.0 cm

4. 5.0 cm

10 / 40

10) An insulated beaker contains 300 g of water, initially at 30 °C. Water at 100 °C is added until the temperature of the mixture reaches 50 °C. The specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 J/(g°C).

How much water is added?

1. 60 g

2. 120 g

3. 750 g

4. 180 g

11 / 40

11) A consultant for a cookware manufacturer wishes to make a pan that will have two features:

(i) absorb energy from a flame as quickly as possible, and

(ii) has a cooking surface that stays as hot as possible when heated.

Which pan would be recommended?

1. outer and inner surface black

2. outer surface black and inner surface shiny

3. outer and inner surface shiny

4. outer surface shiny and inner surface black

12 / 40

12) In a nuclear power station, energy released from nuclear reactions are harnessed to produce electricity. Which statement about the reactors in a nuclear power plant is correct?

1. A nuclear reaction may be initiated when a proton bombards a heavy nucleus, causing more protons to be released in a chain reaction.

2. Large amount of radioactive substances are required to produce a small amount of electricity.

3. The reactions are easily controlled and no harmful substances are produced in a nuclear reaction.

4. Nuclear reactors make use of reactions where heavy nuclei decay into smaller nuclei.

13 / 40

13) A force of 400 N is applied on a crate of weight 500 N along a ramp as shown in the diagram. The crate moves a distance of 5.0 m at constant speed.

1. C

2. A

3. B

4. D

14 / 40

14) The diagram shows the speed-time graph of a moving object over a period of 50 s.

What is the average speed of the object when it is decelerating?

1. 11 m/s

2. 10 m/s

3. 12 m/s

4. 17 m/s

15 / 40

15) Which of the following correctly describes an action-reaction pair of forces?

1. The reaction force on a book resting on a table and the weight of the book.

2. A runner pushes backward on the ground and the ground pushes forwards on runner.

3. The backward force acting on water by propeller and the resistive force acting on the boat.

4. The pulling force acting on a trolley and the frictional force acting on the trolley.

16 / 40

16) Alex is jogging at constant speed beside a road. He sees the traffic lights in front of him turn amber, so he begins to jog at a lower constant speed. Which distance-time graph illustrates Alex’s motion?

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. A

17 / 40

17) A rubber ducky is released from the bottom of a pool of water. Almost immediately, it rises at a constant speed to reach the surface of the water. Which of the following best describes the resultant force acting on the rubber ducky?

1. upwards and equal to the rubber ducky’s weight

2. upwards and greater than the rubber ducky’s weight

3. upwards and less than the rubber ducky’s weight

4. zero

18 / 40

18) A drone moves eastwards and arrives at a point due east of its starting point.

The drone has a speed of V in still air.

A wind of speed W is blowing from north to south, affecting the drone.

Which diagram correctly represents the resultant velocity, R, of the drone?

1. A

2. D

3. B

4. C

19 / 40

19) Block A and block B are connected by a light inextensible string. A force of 12 N acts on block A as shown.

Given that the floor is smooth, what is the tension in the string connecting block A and block B?

1. 12 N

2. 8.0 N

3. 4.0 N

4. 2.0 N

20 / 40

20) Electricity is transmitted over large distances through high-voltage power cables running alternating current. What are the advantages of using high-voltage cables and alternating current?

1. C

2. A

3. D

4. B

21 / 40

21) The diagram below shows a simple d.c. motor

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. A current will flow round the coil in the direction WXYZ.

II. The coil will rotate in a clockwise direction about the axle.

III. The split-ring commutator will reverse the direction of the current every 360°.

1. I only

2. I and III only

3. II and III only

4. I and II only

22 / 40

22) A beam of electrons moves in a straight path through a magnetic field with an initial velocity, v. The electrons are deflected as shown.

What is the direction of the magnetic field?

1. out of the paper

2. into the paper

3. to the right

4. to the left

23 / 40

23) A simple electromagnet can be made by winding a wire round an iron nail and supplying a current through a cell as shown in the diagram below.

1. A

2. C

3. D

4. B

24 / 40

24) The ends of three metal rods are tested by holding end Q of rod 1 close to each end of rods 2 and 3.

The results are as follows:

End Q attracts end R.

End Q attracts end S.

End Q attracts end T.

End Q repels end U.

Which of the metal rods is a magnet?

1. rod 2 and rod 3 only

2. rod 1 and rod 3 only

3. rod 1 only

4. rod 2 only

25 / 40

25) A horizontal beam of electrons passes between the two poles of a magnet.

In which direction is the beam deflected?

1. out of the page

2. towards the north pole

3. towards the south pole

4. into the page

26 / 40

26) The figure shows an iron bar P and steel bar Q being wound by wire and connected to a d.c. supply. A compass is placed between the two metal bars at position X.

1. A

2. B

3. C

4. D

27 / 40

27) The diagram shows an ideal transformer. An alternating current supply of 100 V is supplied to the primary coil and a current of 0.50 A flows through it.

1. D

2. C

3. B

4. A

28 / 40

28) In the circuit shown, the battery has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 6.0 V and negligible internal resistance. The three resistors each have resistance R.

The total power dissipated in the resistor network is 24 W. What is the value of R?

1. 0.5 ohms

2. 2.3 ohms

3. 1.5 ohms

4. 1.0 ohms

29 / 40

29) Two resistors of 3 ohms and 6 ohms are arranged in parallel. A p.d. is connected across the terminals X and Y.

The current through the 6 ohms resistor is 4 A.

What is the current in the ammeter?

1. 12A

2. 4A

3. 8A

4. 6A

30 / 40

30) In the circuit shown, the resistance of R1 R2, and R3 are all equal to 3.0 Ω.

What is the power dissipated by R2?

1. 12 W

2. 6.0 W

3. 9.0 W

4. 3.0 W

31 / 40

31) What is the function of the earth wire?

1. It allows excessive charges to be stored to conserve energy

2. It provides an alternative path for current to flow if a wiring fault occurs.

3. It is a high resistance wire to reduce the amount of current to a safe level.

4. It closes the circuit so current may flow to operate a device.

32 / 40

32) A combined bathroom unit of a heater and a lamp is controlled by one switch. The unit contains a 2 kW heater and a 100 W lamp. In one week, the lamp uses 1 kWh of electrical energy.

How much electrical energy is used by the heater alone?

1. 2 kWh

2. 20 kWh

3. 10 kWh

4. 4 kWh

33 / 40

33) A wire has a resistance of 8.0 Ω. A second wire, made of the same material, has double the length and half the thickness.

What is the resistance of the second wire?

1. 64 ohms

2. 16 ohms

3. 32 ohms

4. 8 ohms

34 / 40

34) A pulse of sound is transmitted vertically downward from the bottom of a stationery ship, and the time taken for its echo to be detected back at the ship is recorded. The ship repeats this process at another location. The new time recorded is 1.5 times as long as the time taken at the first location.

Which of the following is correct?

1. The depth at the new location is 1.5 times as deep as the original location.

2. The depth at the new location is 0.75 times as deep as the original location.

3. The speed of sound at the original location is 1.5 times as fast as at the new location.

4. The speed of sound at the original location is 0.75 times as fast as at the new location.

35 / 40

35) A piece of metal is heated, and its mass and volume are measured to determine how its density changes with temperature.

Which of the following graphs shows the relationship between the density of the substance and temperature?

1. B

2. C

3. D

4. A

36 / 40

36) Pendulum X makes 25 complete oscillations in 10 s. Pendulum Y makes 15 complete oscillations in 15 s. Both pendulums were displaced by a small angle before their oscillations.

Which statement must be true?

1. The angle of swing of release for pendulum Y is smaller than that of pendulum X.

2. The mass of the bob of pendulum Y is smaller than that of pendulum X.

3. Pendulum Y has a shorter period than pendulum X.

4. The string of pendulum Y is longer than that of pendulum X.

37 / 40

37) Which instrument is most suitable for measuring the internal diameter of a pipe?

1. manometer

2. digital micrometer

3. digital calipers

4. measuring cylinder

38 / 40

38) A 4.0 m long uniform plank weighing 50 N balances on two pivots P and Q when a load of 40 N is placed at one end.

1. A

2. D

3. C

4. B

39 / 40

39) A gas is in a sealed container of constant volume. The gas is heated and the pressure of the gas on the walls of the container increases.

How do the particles of the gas cause this increase in pressure?

1. They hit each other more frequently.

2. They hit the container more frequently.

3. They vibrate faster.

4. They expand.

40 / 40

40) The diagram below shows a water manometer used to measure the pressure inside a gas pipe. The density of water is 1000 kg m-3 and gravitational field strength is 10 N kg-1.

Find the pressure of the gas supply in Pa.

1. 520 Pa above atmospheric pressure

2. 380 Pa

3. 520 Pa

4. 380 Pa above atmospheric pressure

Your score is

The average score is 3%

Physics MCQ Paper 1 now carries a 30% weightage under the current syllabus.
This is a significant portion that can easily impact your final grade by 2–3 bands. To maximise your score, aim for full marks by doing plenty of targeted practice. It might make the difference between A1 and A2.

Never underestimate the difficulty of multiple-choice questions — they are often designed to test your precision and attention to detail. Always check your answers carefully, manage your time wisely, and stay alert for tricky questions.

How are the questions being set?

-Knowledge with Understanding, approximately 45% of the marks with approximately 15% allocated to recall.

-Handling Information and Solving Problems, approximately 55% of the marks.